Participle not conforming in gender?
dj214 at cam.ac.uk
Fri Jan 24 05:28:11 EST 2003
Indeed, I think you are correct.
BTW, it seems that there is at least one Greek MS (038, the Koridethi
Gospels, IXth c.) that reads actually DEDOMENH instead of DEDOMENON. Though
I don't think this is the original reading of the gospel of John, it is
interesting to see that there was a Greek copyist who (consciously or not)
'improved' the text.
> Dirk and Conrad:
> Conrad says:
> "The original question raised by Dirk Jongkind concerned the non-agreement
> of DEDOMENON with EXOUSIA in John 19:11 OUK EICES EXOUSIAN KAT EMOU
> OUDEMIAN EI MH HN DEDOMENON SOI ANWQEN; I think the answer is that we
> mustunderstand the infinitive phrase EXOUSIAN ECEIN as the subject of the
> Please correct me if I'm wrong. Is what you are saying is that the
> infinitive ECEIN (and by extension, its object) is the subject of the
> participle? My understanding of this is that an infinitive used as a noun
> considered to be neuter. If so then the neuter participle is in
> Am I correct in this?
> Dale Greenlee
More information about the B-Greek