Participle not conforming in gender?

Suedaleg at aol.com Suedaleg at aol.com
Fri Jan 24 02:44:04 EST 2003


Dirk and Conrad:

Conrad says:

"The original question raised by Dirk Jongkind concerned the non-agreement
of DEDOMENON with EXOUSIA  in John 19:11 OUK EICES EXOUSIAN KAT EMOU
OUDEMIAN EI MH HN DEDOMENON SOI ANWQEN; I think the answer is that we 
mustunderstand the infinitive phrase EXOUSIAN ECEIN as the subject of the
pluperfect..."

Please correct me if I'm wrong.  Is what you are saying is that the 
infinitive ECEIN (and by extension, its object) is the subject of the 
participle?  My understanding of this is that an infinitive used as a noun is 
considered to be neuter.  If so then the neuter participle is in aggreement.  
Am I correct in this?

Dale Greenlee



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