Participle not conforming in gender?

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Thu Jan 23 13:29:54 EST 2003


At 12:10 PM -0500 1/23/03, Eric S. Weiss wrote:
>Zerwick-Grosvenor GRAMMATIC ANALYSIS states:
>
>"DE-DOMENON pf ptc pass. DIDWMI; HN D. periphr. plpf, had been given (plpf
>implying 'and remains' yours); the neut. ref. ECEIN EXOUSIAN."
>
>Which raises another question: Why does Zerwick call this a periphrastic
>pluperfect, when it's a periphrastic phrase with a perfect participle? Is
>that because HN + present participle equates to an imperfect finite verb,
>and hence HN + perfect participle equates to a pluperfect (whereas ESTIN +
>perfect participle equates to a perfect)?

In a word, yes. The pluperfect itself is pretty rare in the GNT (Accordance
lists only 86 instances--non-periphrastic forms). Of these 79 are marked as
active (and a great number of these are really stative verbs like hEISTHKEI
or HiDEI which really have more the force of an imperfect), 2 as middle, 5
as passive. Periphrastic conjugation of the perfect tenses is fairly common.

The original question raised by Dirk Jongkind concerned the non-agreement
of DEDOMENON with EXOUSIA  in John 19:11 OUK EICES EXOUSIAN KAT EMOU
OUDEMIAN EI MH HN DEDOMENON SOI ANWQEN; I think the answer is that we must
understand the infinitive phrase EXOUSIAN ECEIN as the subject of the
pluperfect: "You would have no authority, had it not been granted to you
from above to have authority."
-- 

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu OR cwconrad at ioa.com
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/



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