Participle not conforming in gender?

Eric S. Weiss eweiss at gte.net
Thu Jan 23 12:10:40 EST 2003


Zerwick-Grosvenor GRAMMATIC ANALYSIS states:

"DE-DOMENON pf ptc pass. DIDWMI; HN D. periphr. plpf, had been given (plpf
implying 'and remains' yours); the neut. ref. ECEIN EXOUSIAN."

Which raises another question: Why does Zerwick call this a periphrastic
pluperfect, when it's a periphrastic phrase with a perfect participle? Is
that because HN + present participle equates to an imperfect finite verb,
and hence HN + perfect participle equates to a pluperfect (whereas ESTIN +
perfect participle equates to a perfect)?



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