subjunctive versus indicative.

Eric S. Weiss eweiss at gte.net
Thu Jan 23 08:39:14 EST 2003


> How does one tell the difference between the various subjunctive forms and those in the indicative that are exactly the same?
> For example, LUH is both the present middle/passive indicative, 2nd person singular, but also the present subjunctive 3rd person singular. I have a feeling the answer is simply context?
> 
> Thanks, 
> Matthew E. Ferris
> 
> 
> Remove NoSpam(spam spoiler) when replying.

If there is a hINA or AN or EAN or some form of "AN" at the beginning of
the clause, this would almost invariably require the verb to be in the
subjunctive. Without a computer program to test this, I would guess that
the majority of subjunctives in the NT have one of these words preceding
the verb, as opposed to having simply a subjunctive verb. Also, if the
verb is hortatory in nature (i.e., "Let us"), then it's probably
subjunctive. Someone/anyone feel free to correct my off-the-cuff remarks
here.



More information about the B-Greek mailing list