John 15:4

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at
Thu Jan 23 06:29:50 EST 2003

At 6:08 AM -0500 1/23/03, <bertdehaan at> wrote:
>The second part of this sentence does not have a verb specified so MEINATE
>would be assumed here.
>The mood of the verb would have to be the same in both parts too, would it

I don't see why; I would assume that the implicit verb of the second clause
is MENW (i.e. the contracted future indicative 1st sg.).

>Imperative makes sense in the first half but not in the second.
>The NIV translates the second half as future. Is this acceptable?

I don't see any reason to question it.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at OR cwconrad at

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