HN in John 1.1a
waldoslusher at yahoo.com
Tue Jan 14 10:32:51 EST 2003
--- "Richard W. Wilson" <rwwilson147 at swbell.net>
> I'm a first time poster to B-Greek. Although I've
> done some Greek study
> in the past, I'm in no sense a scholar, and far less
> of Greek, but I'm
> re-engaging questions I've left on the shelf for a
> long time.
> Does the imperfect active HN in John 1.1a indicate
> or suggest an ongoing
> eternal existence or does it simply mean at a
> particular point in time,
> ie., the beginning, the Word existed?
You have to consider the imperfect of HN with other
features in this context when drawing deductions.
Many people are uncomfortable with Predestination. But
it is stated in the bible. Obviously, how one defines
that term is what causes strife and "flame throwing."
This is another one of those passages. Here, much more
is stated about the LOGOS. It states that the LOGOS
was already in existence at the point of time all
things came into being. And if the LOGOS existed prior
to the creation of all things, the LOGOS was not
created. Therefore, the LOGOS is eternal. And all of
this must be concluded from the text, irregardless of
one's theological persuasion.
Beyond that, I think it wise on a forum like this to
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