HN in John 1.1a
Richard W. Wilson
rwwilson147 at swbell.net
Mon Jan 13 21:32:51 EST 2003
I'm a first time poster to B-Greek. Although I've done some Greek study
in the past, I'm in no sense a scholar, and far less of Greek, but I'm
re-engaging questions I've left on the shelf for a long time.
Does the imperfect active HN in John 1.1a indicate or suggest an ongoing
eternal existence or does it simply mean at a particular point in time,
ie., the beginning, the Word existed?
I would appreciate whatever you might contribute to my/our understanding
on these questions. What do you think?
Richard Worden Wilson
[Moderator's note: Please, let's keep any discussion of these questions
focused upon what meaning may legitimately be derived from the
Greek text itself as a Greek text. cwc]
Richard W. Wilson, Our Net Services, 147 Firwood Drive, St. Louis, MO
63119-4614; ph: 314-963-1342.
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