HN in John 1.1a

Richard W. Wilson rwwilson147 at swbell.net
Mon Jan 13 21:32:51 EST 2003


Hello,

I'm a first time poster to B-Greek. Although I've done some Greek study 
in the past, I'm in no sense a scholar, and far less of Greek, but I'm
re-engaging questions I've left on the shelf for a long time.

Does the imperfect active HN in John 1.1a indicate or suggest an ongoing 
eternal existence or does it simply mean at a particular point in time, 
ie., the beginning, the Word existed?

I would appreciate whatever you might contribute to my/our understanding
on these questions. What do you think?

In Christ,
Richard Worden Wilson

[Moderator's note: Please, let's keep any discussion of these questions 
focused upon what meaning may legitimately be derived from the 
Greek text itself as a Greek text. cwc]
-- 
Richard W. Wilson, Our Net Services, 147 Firwood Drive, St. Louis, MO 
63119-4614; ph:  314-963-1342.


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