[b-Greek] EPHESIANS 1.4,5

Pere Porta Roca pporta at tinet.fut.es
Tue Jan 14 00:58:13 EST 2003



----- Original Message -----
From: "Long, Fred" <longf at bethelcollege.edu>
To: "Biblical Greek" <b-greek at franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Monday, January 13, 2003 5:26 PM
Subject: [b-greek] RE: AMNOS-ARNION

Dear all,

I'm seeking for the true difference, if any, between the term 'AMNOS', lamb,
(John 1:29) and ARNION (Revelation in general, anywhere, for example 5:12,
etc.).
Is perhaps O AMNOS a different animal from TO ARNION?
I've not looked at any biblical Dictionary nor know I whether such a
Dictionary speaks about this. Perhaps if I look at such a work I'll get the
answer which I'm seeking for?

I'm asking myself: If John is the author of both the Evangile and the
Revelation is it not a little striking he doesn't use in both books the same
term to show or to point to the same animal?
Perhaps is an ARNION a horned and a more developped or grown AMNOS?
Or, if you prefer, is perhaps an AMNOS the same thing (animal now) as an
ARNION but one calls AMNOS the animal when it is in the first months of its
life, that's to say: AMNOS = young/baby ARNION?

May we say that in John 1:29 it is not John the evangelist who is speaking
but John the Baptist is speaking so that who uses the word AMNOS is not John
(the writer)?

I'm from the South Europa area and I've seen that generally speaking the
Bible translations to romanic languages --such as Spanish, Catalan, French,
Italian and so on--  give of both terms the same translation word: sp.
cordero; cat. anyell; fr. agneau, etc.

Is it done wrong, in the present case, to translate these two differents
terms into the same word? So should AMNOS be translated into one word and
ARNION should be translated into another word (if these two different and
specific words exist in the target language, of course)?

(Please be not struck by my use of English prepositions: as I said I am not
from the English or anglophone area)

I'll be grateful to you for your comments.

L. Besses




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