[B-Greek] Spirit or spirit

andy nwebube andy at ipbackbone.co.uk
Wed Feb 26 10:15:54 EST 2003

> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-greek-
> bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Polycarp66 at aol.com
> Sent: 26 February 2003 14:55
> To: andy.nwebube at nl.wanadoo.com; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Spirit or spirit
> In a message dated 2/26/2003 9:30:16 AM Eastern Standard Time,
> andy.nwebube at nl.wanadoo.com writes:
> > 9      But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that
> > the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit
> > Christ, he is none of his.
> > 26    Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know
> > not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself
> > intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered.
> > 27    And he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of
> > Spirit, because he maketh intercession for the saints according to
> > will of God.
> >
> > In verse 9, I reckon that the spirit means the spirit of man,
because it
> > does not make sense that we walk in the Spirit of  God. If the
> > comparison is with the flesh of man then it seems likely that it
> > mean mans spirit and not the Spirit of God.
> >
> > Secondly, in verse 27, logically, the way it makes sense to me is as
> > follows:
> >
> > "He who searches the heart of men, "then" knows the mind of the
> > of "men",
> > (why/how?) Because the Spirit of God by our spirit (giving us
> > utterances) makes intercession for..."
> >
> > I checked myself and it turns out that the translations for the
> > of man is "pneumati" and the Spirit of God is "pneuma" or
> > Could anybody throw more light on this issue with the Greek
> > Especially with the verses I listed above. I know for a fact that in
> > Galatians 5:16 although spirit was written as representing the
Spirit of
> > God, it means mans spirit.
> >
> In v. 9 PNEUMATI is simply the dative form of PNEUMA.  It is not a
> different
> word having a different significance.  You state that in v. 9 you
> that
> it is the spirit of man which is envisioned rather than the Spirit of
> I
> don't think that from Paul's argument this is a tenable position.
> not
> deal with Gal 5.16 since I don't wish to get distracted from the issue
> hand.  Paul argues in Rom 8.9 that if the Spirit of God dwells in a
> then they are not "in the flesh" so what is being set forth is a
> between being "in the flesh" (EN SARKI) and "in the Spirit" (EN
Thanks for the response, what will you say about the verse below:

Rom 8:10   And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but
the Spirit is life because of righteousness.

I think that word Spirit here, refers to the spirit of man. Because it
would not make sense to say "the Spirit of God is life because of
righteousness". The Spirit of God is God in Himself because of who He
is. The spirit of man is life (made alive) because of righteousness is
more appropriate. 

Now it has being represented as Spirit instead of spirit. This is
similar to the initial issue I brought up. All I need is a clear
indication of when it should be Spirit and not spirit and visa versa.

Thanks again


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