dan_rach at ntlworld.com
Wed May 29 06:37:00 EDT 2002
Is not ESCATOU simply the genitive of the noun TO ESCATON. Compare, Acts 1:8
and 13:47 (the latter quoting Isa.), referring to the ESCATOU THS GHS (note
GH is also fem.), or Mk 12:22 ESCATON PANTWN (here it is adverbial - 'at the
end of it all'). I don't feel I have any grammatical problem with the NA
text as it stands. TO ESCATON is a fairly common substantive on its own in
Herodotus and other classical writings.
However, my NA27 gives the textual witness to ESCATWN as
Y,629,1505,pauci,a,b,d,t. There is no reference to Majority Text, yet the TR
clearly does have ESCATWN. Is this an oversight by NA?
> Hebrews 1:2 reads EP ESXATOU TWN hHMERWN TOUTWN
> ELALHSEN hHMIN EN hUIW(i).
> My question is this: Since ESXATOS is an adjective
> presumably qualifying hHMERWN (certainly to judge by
> the translations), why is it singular when hHMERWN is
> To put the question another way, if the usual
> translation ("these last days") is the correct one is
> there any particular significance in the lack of
> agreement in number?
> David Thiele
> Pacific Adventist University
> Papua New Guinea
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