Hebrews 1:2

Steve Drukas plunix at subdimension.com
Wed May 29 04:22:39 EDT 2002


I don't see why the adjective here would be singular when it applies to a 
plural noun. The only possible answer I can think of is that this is an 
incorrect reading of the text. The Nestle-Aland NT contains the text you 
quoted, but the Textus Receptus contains ESCATWN (plural), not ESCATOU 
(singular).

On Wednesday 29 May 2002 01:19 am, David Thiele wrote:
> Hebrews 1:2 reads EP ESCATOU TWN hHMERWN TOUTWN
> ELALHSEN hHMIN EN hUIW(i).
>
> My question is this: Since ESCATOS is an adjective
> presumably qualifying hHMERWN (certainly to judge by
> the translations),  why is it singular when hHMERWN is
> plural?
>
> To put the question another way, if the usual
> translation ("these last days") is the correct one is
> there any particular significance in the lack of
> agreement in number?

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