thielogian at yahoo.com
Wed May 29 02:19:48 EDT 2002
Hebrews 1:2 reads EP ESXATOU TWN hHMERWN TOUTWN
ELALHSEN hHMIN EN hUIW(i).
My question is this: Since ESXATOS is an adjective
presumably qualifying hHMERWN (certainly to judge by
the translations), why is it singular when hHMERWN is
To put the question another way, if the usual
translation ("these last days") is the correct one is
there any particular significance in the lack of
agreement in number?
Pacific Adventist University
Papua New Guinea
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