Imperative or Indicative in John 14:1

Douglas B Barnes dngbarnes at juno.com
Sat May 25 11:39:24 EDT 2002


Good day, all! Just working my way through the latter chapters of John,
and I come across these interesting constructions in the early part of
ch. 14, with identical verbs (PISTEUETE, to be precise) that could be
translted either in the indicative or the imperative. I have several
questions on the matter, if anyone is up for it:

1. Most English translations seem to opt for indicative in the first
instance and imperative in the second, which is all fine and good -- but
I don't understand why. Was this simply a judgment call based on
preconceived notions? Or are there grammatical reasons for this
indicative/imperative duo? 

2. Since the same word would necessarily seem, by the context, to be
translated in the imperative in verse 11. Should this have any bearing on
the two instances of 1? 

3. To further complicate matters, the NIV departs from the flow and
renders PISTEUETE as "trust," rather than believe. Judgment call? Being
different for the sake of being different? Or would there be a legitimate
reason not to render this word, in this usage, as "believe"?

Any aid is greatly appreciated!! 

Under His Mercy,
doug barnes
Enjoying the riches of God's Grace at Mid-America Reformed Seminary
dngbarnes at juno.com -- (219) 933-6603 -- Hammond, IN
"For the LORD is good; His mercy is everlasting. His truth endureth to
all generations."



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