infinitive -> finite verb

hefin jones hefinjones at
Fri May 24 03:51:20 EDT 2002

Ward has re-opened the discussion about 1 Tim 2:12 (to which Iver has just 
responded). I have a pretty strictly grammatical question to ask Iver, 
though I'd be interested in others' understanding of the grammar  also. In 
an earlier post Iver took DIDASKEIN and AUQENTEIN to mean "teaching 
authoritatively" (oops! I paraphrase a bit...). His justification for seeing 
AUQENTEIN as modifying DIDASKEIN seemed to be that OUDE functions 
explicatively in this context. I am drawn to this interpretation myself but 
I just felt that the argument was a bit "thin". Clay introduced the A. 
Koestenberger article into the discussion. In that article Koestenberger 
seems to argue that the two infinitives are to be taken as two separate 
activities, both of which are viewed similarily and both prohibited by Paul. 
What do people think? What evidence is there to posit that the OUDE is 
explicative? How would one respond to Koestenberger's claim?

Hefin Jones

BTh year 3 Student, Moore College, Sydney.

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