infinitive -> finite verb
hefinjones at hotmail.com
Fri May 24 03:51:20 EDT 2002
Ward has re-opened the discussion about 1 Tim 2:12 (to which Iver has just
responded). I have a pretty strictly grammatical question to ask Iver,
though I'd be interested in others' understanding of the grammar also. In
an earlier post Iver took DIDASKEIN and AUQENTEIN to mean "teaching
authoritatively" (oops! I paraphrase a bit...). His justification for seeing
AUQENTEIN as modifying DIDASKEIN seemed to be that OUDE functions
explicatively in this context. I am drawn to this interpretation myself but
I just felt that the argument was a bit "thin". Clay introduced the A.
Koestenberger article into the discussion. In that article Koestenberger
seems to argue that the two infinitives are to be taken as two separate
activities, both of which are viewed similarily and both prohibited by Paul.
What do people think? What evidence is there to posit that the OUDE is
explicative? How would one respond to Koestenberger's claim?
BTh year 3 Student, Moore College, Sydney.
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