infinitive -> finite verb

Iver Larsen iver_larsen at
Mon May 20 08:30:24 EDT 2002

> Andreas Kostenberger* states that the placement of DIDASKEIN prior to the
> finite verb EPITREPW does not have much significance (not for his argument
> at least) in 1Tim. 2:12. Do any of you text linguists have a problem with
> this? Seems like just about everything I have read on constituent order
> recently (last 10 years) would find some sort of significance in the
> position of DIDASKEIN. Iver, what do you think about this one?
> --
> Clayton Stirling Bartholomew

Yes, Clay, you probably know what I am going to say. In my understanding of
Greek word order, it is highly significant that DIDASKEIN is in first
position and is followed by DE. The DE indicates the contrast to the verbs
in the preceding sentence: GUNH EN hHSUCIA MANQANETW EN PASHi hUPOTAGHi.
Paul appears to say that a woman/wife ought to accept to be taught in
quietness and submission. Apparently some women were taking upon themselves
an authoritative role as teacher in the church, probably in conflict with
some of the church leaders.

Paul did not prohibit women from instructing other women or from
prophesying, but he did not accept them in the circle of those who decide on
what is right and wrong teaching. As one who works on dynamic translations
into modern languages and cultures, I would prefer something like "take on
the role of authoritative teacher" rather than the general "teach" in order
to present a more accurate rendering of the specific meaning in this
context. Paul also indicated that not all men were qualified to take on the
role of authoritative teacher - 1 Cor 12:29. It is a gift and ministry from
God to a few people. Confer also James 3:1. It is a serious responsibility.
Whether the situation for men and women today is different is beyond the
scope of this list to discuss.

Iver Larsen

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