infinitive -> finite verb

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Mon May 20 06:44:24 EDT 2002


At 11:40 PM -0700 5/19/02, c stirling bartholomew wrote:
>Andreas Kostenberger* states that the placement of DIDASKEIN prior to the
>finite verb EPITREPW does not have much significance (not for his argument
>at least) in 1Tim. 2:12. Do any of you text linguists have a problem with
>this? Seems like just about everything I have read on constituent order
>recently (last 10 years) would find some sort of significance in the
>position of DIDASKEIN. Iver, what do you think about this one?
>
>1TIM. 2:12 DIDASKEIN DE GUNAIKI OUK EPITREPW OUDE AUQENTEIN ANDROS, ALL'
>EINAI EN hHSUCIAi.

Well, I'm not altogether sure what a "text linguist" is and I'm pretty sure
I can't qualify as one, but it seems to me that the position of DIDASKEIN
DE is best understood as governed by the sequence from verse 11, i..e. the
contrast with MANQANETW:

GUNH EN hHSUCIAi MANQANETW EN PASHi hUPOTAGHi; DIDASKEIN DE GUNAIKI OUK
EPITREPW ...

I'd convey the force of the word-order thus: "A woman is to learn in
silence in total submission, and as for teaching, I don't allow a woman (to
do it) ..."
-- 

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
Most months:: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu OR cwconrad at ioa.com
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/



More information about the B-Greek mailing list