Ge'enna & 'ades

Lloyd Dawson bemaseat2001 at yahoo.com.au
Sun May 12 09:23:59 EDT 2002


Dear Fellow Greekers

In studying Eschatology I have stumbled on what
appears to be a translating inquiry.  Why is GEhENNAN
(Mt. 5: 22, 28 + others) translated as 'hell'
(NRSV).  To my thinking GEhENNAN is the name of a
place and therefore its title is a proper noun the
same as EFESOS is to Ephesus, why change it?

On the other hand, if we are to change it, then as
equally puzzling is hADES being translated as hades in
keeping with the proper noun (however the NIV has
hades, depths, hell & grave).  It seems to me that I'm
missing a piece of the puzzle.  Please help

If a response to these questions necessitates
clarification theologically, please feel free to
respond off list.

Yours in Christ

Lloyd Dawson
Townsville, Aust.


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