1st post question 1 Corinthians 9:27

Trevor & Julie Peterson 06peterson at cua.edu
Thu May 9 21:33:42 EDT 2002


You're right about the function of AUTOS as 3ms personal pronoun, but that's
just one of its functions. This use translated in English as "myself" is
another common function, where it focuses attention on the noun it modifies.
It can also mean "same." Any basic grammar should address these uses,
usually in a lesson on the uses of AUTOS.

Trevor Peterson
CUA/Semitics

> -----Original Message-----
> From: Debbie McChesney [mailto:perry at globalriver.com]
> Sent: Thu, May 09, 2002 11:12 AM
> To: Biblical Greek
> Subject: [b-greek] 1st post question 1 Corinthians 9:27
>
>
> In the last part of 1 Corinthians 9:27 I would like to know why "autos" is
> translated "I myself". I looked in at least 10 different translations and
> they all say "I myself" but I thought "autos" was 3rd person singular and
> should be he or it. I am a real beginner in Greek and only know a few
> words, the alphabet and how to use the Strong's and Arndt/Gingrich
> lexicon. I do have the English hexpla which has the Greek at the top and
> also the septuagint in Greek and the English Sir Lancelot translation.
> Thank you for any helpful replies,
> Debbie McChesney
>
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