emory2oo2 at hotmail.com
Tue May 7 15:23:50 EDT 2002
>Concernintg this verse..The word "had" is the imperfect tense of the =
>Greek word "echo." The following definition of the imperfect is given in =
>Syntax and Synon. of the Greek Testament, pg.87; "The imperfect denotes =
>an incomplete action, one that is in its course, and is not yet brought =
>to its intended accomplishment. It implies that a certain thing was =
>going on at a specified time, but excludes the assertion that the end of =
>the action was attained." In other words, Jesus was in the process of =
>being glorified. Instead of reading, "the glory which I had," it should =
>read, "the glory which I am having." He was "having glory."
This is awkward English. The definition of the Imperfect above is
partly correct, but don't forget that the Imperfect Indicative
references past time, not present time. You could say, "was having,"
but that's not necessary to bring out the imperfective aspect.
You could simply say, "I previously had/possessed."
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