emory2oo2 at hotmail.com
Tue May 7 15:08:08 EDT 2002
>This post is relating to something I read on another discussion list. My
>question is this; Why don't we see the definite article between IHSOUS
>CRISTOS? I'm sure there is a grammatical reason for it, but for the life
>of me I can't think why. Please bear with me if this is a simplistic (or
The definite article would really add nothing to IHSOUS CRISTOS.
CRISTOS was already conceptualized and definite. In Jewish and
early Christianity, there were no competing CRISTOI. The term
CRISTOS was already understood as the promised Messiah of the OT.
In scholarly commentaries, you will see the expression "Messiah"
and/or "the Messiah." Both are acceptable. The first time I read
"Messiah" without the definite article, I did a double take. I read
something like, "it was expected that Messiah would come in an
apocalyptic manner..." Just takes a little getting use to.
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