The world

osbo at hn.ozemail.com.au osbo at hn.ozemail.com.au
Tue May 7 00:41:21 EDT 2002


In the Greek there are three words used for world, can some one please =
tell my the reason why this?

I have recently been trying to fathom out the translation of John 17:5 =
and have had the following presented to me, would some one please =
comment..

Concernintg this verse..The word "had" is the imperfect tense of the =
Greek word "echo." The following definition of the imperfect is given in =
Syntax and Synon. of the Greek Testament, pg.87; "The imperfect denotes =
an incomplete action, one that is in its course, and is not yet brought =
to its intended accomplishment. It implies that a certain thing was =
going on at a specified time, but excludes the assertion that the end of =
the action was attained." In other words, Jesus was in the process of =
being glorified. Instead of reading, "the glory which I had," it should =
read, "the glory which I am having." He was "having glory."

  The word "was" is the present infinitive of the Greek word "eimi." The =
most common translation of this tense is "to be." That is how it appears =
in the Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures and The =
Emphatic Diaglott. Jn.17:5 should read, "And now, O Father, glorify thou =
me with thine own self with the glory which I am having with thee before =
the world to be (or to come)."=20

Is there a better translation than the AV?

Lew Osborne

 osbo at hn.ozemail.com.au

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