lance w seevers
lws39 at juno.com
Wed May 1 00:08:43 EDT 2002
I read in a Homeric Greek grammar that the absence of the article did not
make the noun indefinite. Was there an author who expressed the change?
Can we see in the writings of classical Greek when the change took place?
Or is the author all wet?
If this is too off topic, please contact me off list.
I am going through the Iliad. I am a lurker who is trying to broaden his
Greek horizons beyond the NT and Septuagint. I am not grinding any axes!
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