genitive 1Jn 1:1

Polycarp66 at Polycarp66 at
Sat Mar 23 19:53:22 EST 2002

In a message dated 3/23/2002 5:09:17 PM Eastern Standard Time, rbsads at 

Then, is it that we should understand TOU LOGOU and THS ZWHS in verse one
as being in apposition?

"what we looked on and our hands touched concerning the word, which is
life.  And this life has been manifested...We have seen and we witness and
declare to you this life, which is eternal, and which was with the Father
and manifested to us."

   If this is so, have I been reading 1 John with John 1 too much in mind?

I think that you would not be incorrect to view 1 Jn 1.1 in light of Jn 1.1.  
I would, however, hesitate to refer to it as being appositive.  It seems that 
1 Jn 1.1 specifically refers back to Jn 1.1. Although v. 1 and v. 2 refer to 
the same thing, one refers to it in a more philosophical manner and the other 
as the incarnation of that philosophy.  [v. 1]"What (philosophically) we 
heard and saw (in life), [v. 2] THAT HAS BEEN REVEALED (physically), WE HAVE 


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