1 Cor. 2:15

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Fri Mar 22 11:42:38 EST 2002

At 1:59 AM +0000 3/22/02, Mark Wilson wrote:
>"The one who is spiritual understands/discerns all things, yet he himself is
>understood/discerned by no one"
>To which one commentary suggests:
>the person without the S/spirit can not
>understand the person with the S/spirit.
>The last part of this is what is troubling me.
>In what sense is this person understood/discerned by NO ONE?
>I can see that a person without the Spirit would not be
>capable of understanding him on matters related to spiritual things,
>but those with the Spirit certainly would be able to understand him.
>How is it that he is understood by no one? Most seem to supply
>a missing modifier, as in: by no one (among the YUCIKOS ANQRWPOI).
>Any help would be appreciated

Well, I think that the commentator is asserting something and you are
asking a question about something beyond what the passage itself actually
says. That interpretation MAY be valid, but I don't think that the Greek
necessarily implies that.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
Most months:: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu OR cwconrad at ioa.com
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/

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