1JN 1:4

Steven Lo Vullo slovullo at mac.com
Sun Mar 17 22:50:02 EST 2002

on 3/17/02 8:47 PM, richard smith at rbsads at aol.com wrote:

Hi Richard:

> In A Graded Reader of Biblical Greek, the exegetical footnote describes Hi
> PEPLHRWMENH as a periphrastic construction.
> In the text book Basics of Bible Greek, as well as Greek Grammar Beyond
> the Basics, the periphrastic construction is described as being formed
> with an indicative (non-aorist) form of EIMI.

EIMI doesn't have an aorist form. Periphrastic constructions are also formed
with subjunctive and optative forms of EIMI. See below.
> Can the above verse be considered a periphrastic construction?  If so, how
> can the continuous historical sense of the pluperfect be translated?

Yes, it can be a periphrastic construction, namely perfect passive
subjunctive. Wallace, on p. 647 of Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, says:
"Certain tense forms in Greek were expressed exclusively by the periphrastic
construction; namely, the perfect middle-passive subjunctive and optative."
He lists this verse under 4) Perfect Periphrastic, on p. 649.
> It does seem to me that, in this verse, PEPLHRWMENH is a predicate
> adjective, expressing with the subjunctive, the potential of a lasting
> state of fulfilled joy.

Robertson, in his Word Pictures, comments on this construction:
"Periphrastic perfect passive subjunctive of PLHROW, stressing the state of
completion in the purpose (hINA), remain full, precisely as in John 16:24."

Steven Lo Vullo
Madison, WI
slovullo at mac.com

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