Jn 11:37 question tag OUK

richard smith rbsads at aol.com
Sat Mar 16 10:26:05 EST 2002

Clay wrote: "it might be argued that Jesus EMBRIMWMENOS EN
EAUTW (11:38) was about something other than his friend's death."

Thanks Carl, Iver and Clay,

Carl explained that the question of the intent of the rhetorical question
in verse 37 is beyond a question of Greek grammar.

Verse 37 is a negative evaluation of Jesus, but whether it is that he
could act and did not or simply could not have acted, we cannot know from
the grammar.

Clay's point that if the Jews thought the latter then they further would
have argued that the other healings were fraud is a new consideration for
me.  Thank you.

This would have been proof the Jesus did not heal as they had heard.

I understand that theological discussions are inappropriate on BGreek. My
follow up language question though is related to this matter, and follows
from Clay's post.

Does EMBRIMAOMAI mean, in the synchronic world of NT Greek, to be greatly
fretted or agitated, to charge or fobid sternly or vehemently, and to
express indignation?

And how do the dative constructions of TWi PNEUMATI in verse 33 and EV
EAUTWi in verse 38 modify the verb ENEBRIMHSATO and the participle
EMBRIMWMENOS respectively? Do "in the spirit" and "in himself" mean
basically the same thing? Does it mean that this agitation was within
Himself, and not visible to others?

The translations do not in my opinion convey in the English how I would
understand the definitions of EMBRIMAOMAI which are found in my lexicon.

Clay and Iver both point that this description of Jesus' emotions seems to
indicate a response to something in addition to the emotions felt at His
friend's death, especially given the texts representation that Jesus knew
that He would raise Lazarus back to life.


Richard Smith
Chattanooga, TN

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