question concerning dictionary entries
Denny A Diehl
dd-1 at juno.com
Mon Mar 11 00:12:29 EST 2002
Denny Diehl to Carl Conrad,
> >I have to wonder why in a list of Greek words for "Love" it
> >invariably is given:
> > AGAPH
> > FILEW
> > ...
> >Why is the noun form (AGAPH) and then the verb form (FILEW)
> >used instead of being uniformly the noun or verb form? Any good
> >reason for that?
> Invariably? In how many sources have you seen this?
I guess I should have made that clear--no scholarly sources, just
fellas making reference to different Greek words for "love". Granted
that "love" is both a noun and a verb, but to me it would make more
sense to list all noun forms or all verb forms, but for whatever
reason AGAPH is given, then FILEW... (instead of FILOS).
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