question concerning dictionary entries

Denny A Diehl dd-1 at
Mon Mar 11 00:12:29 EST 2002

Denny Diehl to Carl Conrad,

> >I have to wonder why in a list of Greek words for "Love" it
> >invariably is given:
> >
> >	...
> >
> >Why is the noun form (AGAPH) and then the verb form (FILEW)
> >used instead of being uniformly the noun or verb form?  Any good
> >reason for that?
> Invariably? In how many sources have you seen this? 

I guess I should have made that clear--no scholarly sources, just
fellas making reference to different Greek words for "love".  Granted
that "love" is both a noun and a verb, but to me it would make more
sense to list all noun forms or all verb forms, but for whatever
reason AGAPH is given, then FILEW...  (instead of FILOS).

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