question concerning dictionary entries

Trevor & Julie Peterson 06peterson at
Sun Mar 10 17:50:47 EST 2002

The standard, at least for NT Greek, is to use the present, indicative,
first singular form for lexical entries and citations. The active form is
used, unless the word never appears in the active stem, in which case the
middle form is used. As far as I know, it is customary to use these forms if
you want to refer to the word without inflection; but again, I think that's
limited to NT Greek, or maybe biblical Greek in general. As I recall, LSJ
uses infinitives.

Trevor Peterson

> -----Original Message-----
> From: Steven D. Baxley [mailto:baxley at]
> Sent: Sun, March 10, 2002 1:58 PM
> To: Biblical Greek
> Subject: [b-greek] question concerning dictionary entries
> Hello All,
> Can anyone tell me why in Greek dictionaries, verbs seem to be listed =
> under
> their 1st person singular form, rather than their infinitive forms?  For
> example, if I look at Vine's or Strong's for the word "baptein", I find =
> it
> listed as "bapto" rather than "baptein".  Is this a standard convention =
> when
> dealing with Greek verbs, or am I mistaking the infinitive form?  Or am =
> I
> making some other kind of error in understanding?
> For example, if I speak of the Greek word "bapto" meaning "to dip".  =
> Should
> I say a or b?
> a] "The Greek word "bapto" means "to dip".
> b] "The Greek word "baptein" means "to dip."
> Thank you in advance for your replies.
> Sincerely,
> Steven D. Baxley
> Hradec Kralove, Czech Republic
> [MIME/HTML formatting deleted by moderator, cwc]
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