question concerning dictionary entries

Steven D. Baxley baxley at
Sun Mar 10 13:57:37 EST 2002

Hello All,

Can anyone tell me why in Greek dictionaries, verbs seem to be listed =
their 1st person singular form, rather than their infinitive forms?  For
example, if I look at Vine's or Strong's for the word "baptein", I find =
listed as "bapto" rather than "baptein".  Is this a standard convention =
dealing with Greek verbs, or am I mistaking the infinitive form?  Or am =
making some other kind of error in understanding?

For example, if I speak of the Greek word "bapto" meaning "to dip".  =
I say a or b?

a] "The Greek word "bapto" means "to dip".

b] "The Greek word "baptein" means "to dip."

Thank you in advance for your replies.

Steven D. Baxley
Hradec Kralove, Czech Republic

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