Bryant J. Williams III
bjwvmw at com-pair.net
Fri Mar 8 18:14:19 EST 2002
I take the prepositional phrase, EN TWi HGAPHMENWi, to be "in The Beloved One" and is completing
the thought of the verb, EXAPITWSEN. The participle is taking on the case of EN. Paul is also
making a distinction here with the use of the article. EN HAGAPHMENWi (without the article)
would be translated as "in one who is loved." This would mean that the spiritual blessings
mentioned in 1:3-5 is freely given to any one who is loved by God. But Paul is clearly
indicating with the article that it is one who is in "the Beloved One", i.e. Christ, that has
been freely graced or accepted by God. (I wonder if Paul is alluding to Jn 14:6?or Mt 3:17, but
that is another issue of how much Paul knew of the words of Christ?). This phrase also the
similar of that used Col 1:13, TOU hUIOU THS AGAPHS AUTOU, which is modifying EIS BASILEAN.
Thus, EN XRISTWi, EN AUTWi, EN hWi, and EN HGAPHMENWi are all used to refer to Christ. It would
seem, then, that any idea of spiritual blessings of 1:3-5, justification, sanctification,
adoption as adult sons, etc., is not based on human merit/work/deed/act.
Rev. Bryant J. Williams III
----- Original Message -----
From: "Mark Wilson" <emory2oo2 at hotmail.com>
To: "Biblical Greek" <b-greek at franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Friday, March 08, 2002 1:07 PM
Subject: [b-greek] Eph. 1:6
> EIS EPAINON DOZHS THS CARITOS AUTOU
> hHS ECARITWSEN hHMAS EN TWi HGAPHMENWi
> What is the implication here with the use of
> EN plus the participle TWi HGAPHMENWi?
> In this long section (3-14), the concept of "in Christ"
> is elsewhere expressed EN CRISTWi, EN AUTWi, EN hWi. Why
> the use of this sole participial phrase? What does it convey
> different than the non-participial EN phrases?
> Mark Wilson
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