KAI LEGWN--epexegetical KAI?

Polycarp66 at aol.com Polycarp66 at aol.com
Sun Jan 27 23:57:55 EST 2002


In a message dated 1/27/2002 10:27:01 PM Eastern Standard Time, 
cassian at dellepro.com writes:


> 
> I am working with Mk 1:14-15:
> 
> META DE TO PARADOQHVAI TON IWANNHN, ELQEN Ho IHSOUS EIS THN GALILAIAN
> KHRUSSWN TO EUAGGELION TOU QEOU KAI LEGWN hOTI PEPLHRWTAI hO KAIROS KAI
> HGGIKEN hH BASILEIA TOU QEOU: METANOETE KAI PISTEUETE EN TWi EUAGGELIWi.
> 
> The phrase KAI LEGWN appears in 9 NT passages: Mt 3:2, Mt 8:6, Mt 17:15, Mt
> 26:39, Mk 1:15, Mk 1:40, Jn 7:28, Acts 1:3 and Acts 16:9, all of which
> introduce direct discourse except Acts 1:3. In each case Mk employs a hOTI
> recitativum while the others do not. (Note: there are around 170 instances
> of LEGWN not preceded by KAI in the NT.) Interestingly, in each of these
> eight cases (except Jn 7:28) the main verb of the sentence describes an act
> of spatial movement that comes to a halt or appearance/being in a place,
> which is followed without a conjunction (except in Acts 16:9) by a present
> participle of some type of communication, which in turn is followed by KAI
> LEGWN:
> <snip>
> I would like to consider two aspects of the six Mt-Mk usages, all of which
> follow the same pattern.
> 
> First, and this is the issue of greater interest to me, could the usage of
> KAI be understood as explicative/epexegetical in these cases? In other
> words, is KAI LEGWN a sort a marker for the *content* of the KHPUSSWN or 
> the
> PARAKALWN?

I would think so.  This is pretty much the definition of epexegetic.  You 
have, however, somewhat muddied the waters with your comments re: verbs of 
motion.  These have nothing to do with a word functioning in an epexegetic 
fashion.  The relevant words are as you note in the last words excerpted from 
your post "KHRUSSWN" and "PARAKALWN."


> 
> Secondly, I would like to understand the participles that follow the main
> verb as telic. The agents do not 'appear (in), come forward (to) or fall
> (down upon)' a certain place *as* they are 'proclaiming, beseeching or
> praying', but do so *in order to* 'proclaim, beseech or pray'.
> 
> If my attempt at understanding these passages is not misled, I would like 
> to
> propose a translation (using Mk 1:14 as an example) such as: "Now after 
> John
> was handed over, Jesus came into Galilee in order to proclaim the gospel of
> God and this is what he was saying: The time, etc." [I should note that in
> the two passages that have KHRUSSWN (Mt 3:1 and Mk 1:4), the context seems
> to indicate an ongoing proclamation and LEGWN is rendered according to the
> aspectually imperfect nature of the activity. The other cases narrate
> one-time events and, in my interpretation of these passages, KAI LEGWN 
> would
> have to be translated by something like "and this is what he said:"] I
> realize that B-Greek is not a translation list but I am providing
> translations in order to better convey my proposed interpretation of the
> Greek of these passages.
> 
> I haven't been able to find much in the standard grammars (BDF,
> Moulton-Howard-Turner, Robertson, Wallace) on the epexegetical infinitive
> (or the telic participle for that matter); could anyone direct me to 
> further
> reference works and/or articles?
> 

In Mk 1.14 to which you refer we read

HLQEN hO IHSOUS . . . KHRUSSWN . . .

This is a nominative.  This is not normally what one would expect in a 
purpose clause.  Normally this expressed by such constructions as a clause 
with hINA + subj. or through the use of the infinitive, e.g., Mk 4.3

ECHLQEN hO SPEIRWN SPEIRAI

I won't attempt an exhaustive listing of the constructions.  The nominative 
would more normally express the accompanying circumstance.  

gfsomsel


More information about the B-Greek mailing list