John 20:28

Ken Smith kens at
Fri Jan 25 14:45:32 EST 2002

I expect what they probably mean is that it isn't in the vocative case,
i.e., isn't a case of address.  Doing my best to leave theological
presuppositions aside, I would probably understand hO KURIOS MOU KAI hO
QEOS MOU as a somewhat elliptical way of saying, [SU EI] hO KURIOS MOU
KAI hO QEOS MOU, in which case we would expect the nominative rather
than the vocative case.  (A parallel confession, in the form of a
complete sentence, is found, of course, in Matt. 16:16 -- SU EI hO
CRISTOS, hO HUIOS TOU QEOU TOU ZWNTOS.)  If Thomas' confession were
addressed to the Father, it strikes me as awful close to swearing, and I
have a hard time imagining John closing his Gospel that way -- but with
that observation, I'm moving away from grammar on a particularly
dangerous verse to do so, so I'll close there.

Ken Smith

> -----Original Message-----
> From: Randy [mailto:shroder at] 
> Sent: Friday, January 25, 2002 9:13 AM
> To: Biblical Greek
> Subject: [b-greek] John 20:28
> Greetings,
>  I was talking to a person on another forum and he maintained 
> that grammatically HO KYRIOS in John 20:28 was referring to 
> God the Father. Setting aside theological considerations, 
> does the grammer allow for this understanding?
> Thanks
> Randy Shrode
> shroder at
> ---
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