1 Peter 2:24

Glenn Blank glennblank at earthlink.net
Wed Jan 9 15:59:16 EST 2002



ISTM a matter of paraphrase simply due to discourse considerations or
pragmatics, with no referential significance (that is, I do not think Peter
is implying by IAQHTE that he himself was *not* healed).  There are, of
course,
now quotation marks in Greek to tell us when a writer intends a word for
word
quotation or just a paraphrase -- I get the impression such a distinction
was
not as important to the 1st century Grk writer as it is to the 20th cent
English
writer.

The difference between 1 person plural and 2p is essentially how a writer
chooses to
position himself in relation to his audience -- whether he wants to include
himself in the discussion or focus solely on the audience.  Isaiah 53:5 is
in 1p, but the entire song is in 1p.  Peter, on the other hand frequently
uses 2p when 1p would have been equally applicable; for example  EN OURANOIS
EIS *hUMAS* (1:4), TON KALESANTA *hUMAS* (1:15), *ELUTRQWHTE* EK THS MATAIAS
*hUMWN* (1:18), OIKODOMEISQE (2:5).

So ISTM Peter is simply phrasing his quotation in 2:24 in a way that is
consistent with the writer/audience relationship he has already established
in his previous discourse.

Of course, as Clay has pointed out, this raises the question then of why
Peter should
switch suddenly to 1p twice right before this in 2:24 and then back again to
2p.

But the fact remains that the vast majority of references are 2p.  Why? 
Perphaps to
be consistent with the 2p nature of the large number of imperatives? 
Perhaps to keep
the focus on acknowledging *their* sufferings and *their* blessings as
opposed to
his own?



Grace and Peace
glenn blank
Pensacola FL

----------
>From: tmcos at canada.com
>To: Biblical Greek <b-greek at franklin.oit.unc.edu>
>Subject: [b-greek] 1 Peter 2:24
>Date: 8 Jan 2002 18:59:09 -0800
>
>Dear Friends,
>
>  1 Peter 2:24 in speaking of Christ's suffering makes reference to the
famous Servant Song of Isaiah 53. The LXX of Isaiah 53:5 reads TW MWLWPI
AUTOU hHMEIS IAQHMEN, but Peter writes it as hOU TW MWLWPI IAQHTE.  Can
anyone comment on the difference between IAQHMWN and IAQHTE? I take it that
Peter is deliberately trying to show that Isaiah 53:6 is fulfilled in
Christ. Many thanks in advance.
>
>                          Tony Costa, Master's student
>                          University of Toronto
>
>
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