Matthew 28:1 Interpretation

Clwinbery at Clwinbery at
Thu Jan 3 10:39:08 EST 2002

In a message dated 1/3/02 6:04:16 AM, jonathan5 at writes:

>Hi! I have a question about the interpretation of Matthew 28:1a. The
>phrase "opse de sabbaton" is a bit difficult for me to understand what
>going on in the Greek. We have an adverb (opse) along with a plural
>genitive (de sabbaton).
>BAGD takes opse as an "improper preposition" with the genitive, so the
>interpretation would be "after the Sabbath." In a later discussion one
>fellow said the phrase should be interpreted quite literally into "latter
>of the Sabbaths." When I pointed out BAGD's use of opse, he said
>Blass/Debrunner (and Thayer too I believe) interpreted opse as "latter"
>"later," as well as used the plural "Sabbaths." However I don't have
>access to Blass/Debrunner or Thayer. What are the possible interpretation
>options for Matt 28:1? Also,is the "literal latter" interpretation
>considered a valid option by either references or your opinion?
Thayer in the 1963 printing gives the interpretation of this as "after the 
sabbath" with the comment that in this context no other interpretation is 
possible. There there are several illustrations from biblical and 
non-biblical uses of this "adverb" as an improper preposition.  I agree.

Carlton Winbery
Louisiana College

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