Matthew 28:1 Interpretation

Jonathan Owen jonathan5 at coolgoose.com
Thu Jan 3 01:24:15 EST 2002


Hi! I have a question about the interpretation of Matthew 28:1a. The
phrase "opse de sabbaton" is a bit difficult for me to understand what is
going on in the Greek. We have an adverb (opse) along with a plural
genitive (de sabbaton).

BAGD takes opse as an "improper preposition" with the genitive, so the
interpretation would be "after the Sabbath." In a later discussion one
fellow said the phrase should be interpreted quite literally into "latter
of the Sabbaths." When I pointed out BAGD's use of opse, he said
Blass/Debrunner (and Thayer too I believe) interpreted opse as "latter" or
"later," as well as used the plural "Sabbaths." However I don't have
access to Blass/Debrunner or Thayer. What are the possible interpretation
options for Matt 28:1? Also,is the "literal latter" interpretation
considered a valid option by either references or your opinion?


Thanks
Jonathan Owen





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