Beginner's Question

Trevor & Julie Peterson 06peterson at cua.edu
Wed Sep 26 06:25:00 EDT 2001


Which versions have you consulted?  You're reading the Greek correctly, as
are the versions.  The difference is the Greek text you're looking at.
While the majority of Greek manuscripts read ME, a few read hHMAS, and some
others read SE.  Those that read SE happen to be viewed by a lot of
(probably most) textual scholars as more reliable for various reasons.  It's
also the reading that could most easily explain the other two.  Anyway, I
don't want to get too deeply into the reasons for the decisions at this
point; let it suffice to say that the Greek text underlying the KJV and NKJV
probably read ME.

Trevor Peterson
CUA/Semitics

> -----Original Message-----
> From: Luke Hartman [mailto:lutherkent at mail.com]
> Sent: Wednesday, September 26, 2001 1:53 AM
> To: Biblical Greek
> Subject: [b-greek] Beginner's Question
>
>
> Subscribed a few days ago and enjoying reading the posts so far.
> I have a question regarding the translation of SE in Romans 8:2. The
> verse contains HLEUQERWSEN SE APO TOU NOMOU, and all the English
> versions I have consulted have 'set me free from the law...' (or
> something similar). Why is this translated 'me' when the pronoun is 2
> person singular accusative? Wallace (GGBB) has a category 'second for
> third person', but he says that this is not a case of that, and that SE
> here is used as a singular for the plural, which doesn't explain the
> change in person (at least to me). I would expect it to be EME or ME for
> the translations.
>
> Luke Hartman
> Oklahoma City
>
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