Beginner's Question

Luke Hartman lutherkent at mail.com
Wed Sep 26 01:53:18 EDT 2001


Subscribed a few days ago and enjoying reading the posts so far.
I have a question regarding the translation of SE in Romans 8:2. The
verse contains HLEUQERWSEN SE APO TOU NOMOU, and all the English
versions I have consulted have 'set me free from the law...' (or
something similar). Why is this translated 'me' when the pronoun is 2
person singular accusative? Wallace (GGBB) has a category 'second for
third person', but he says that this is not a case of that, and that SE
here is used as a singular for the plural, which doesn't explain the
change in person (at least to me). I would expect it to be EME or ME for
the translations.

Luke Hartman
Oklahoma City



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