Good Greek Grammar?
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Sat Sep 15 12:50:15 EDT 2001
At 10:37 AM -0500 9/15/01, Harold R. Holmyard III wrote:
>You quoted Blass, Debrunner, Funk, _A Greek Grammar of the NT ...",
>p. 76, #137: "Such incongruencies as are found occasionally in
>other books of the NT are to be regarded either as more excusable or as a
>corruption of the text. ..." Here is cited the positioning of the nom. adj.
>PLHRHS in John 1:14 immediately following THN DOXAN AUTOU, where one would
>expect either an accusative PLHRH or a genitive PLHROUS.
>HH: I have Mounce's _ The Analytical Lexicon to the Greek New Testament_,
>which identifies PLHRHS as a genitive, masculine at John 1:14. But
>Accordance identifies it as nominative, masculine. Is Mounce wrong, since
>PLHRHS would appear to be a third declension adjective, whose genitive
>would be PLHROUS. Also, Mounce says that twice PLHRHS is an accusative,
>masculine singular. But the third declension adjectival form for the
>accusative would seem to be PLHRH. Perhaps there is a typo.
The statements in Mounce, that PLHRHS in John 1:14 is genitive and that
PLHRHS is an acc. m. sg., are certainly wrong. You're right, the gen. sg.
should be PLHROUS (contraction of PLHRE-OS), the acc. m. sg. should be
PLHRH (contraction of PLHRE-A).
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
Most months: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu OR cwconrad at ioa.com
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