Good Greek Grammar?
Harold R. Holmyard III
hholmyard at ont.com
Sat Sep 15 11:37:20 EDT 2001
You quoted Blass, Debrunner, Funk, _A Greek Grammar of the NT ...",
p. 76, #137: "Such incongruencies as are found occasionally in
other books of the NT are to be regarded either as more excusable or as a
corruption of the text. ..." Here is cited the positioning of the nom. adj.
PLHRHS in John 1:14 immediately following THN DOXAN AUTOU, where one would
expect either an accusative PLHRH or a genitive PLHROUS.
HH: I have Mounce's _ The Analytical Lexicon to the Greek New Testament_,
which identifies PLHRHS as a genitive, masculine at John 1:14. But
Accordance identifies it as nominative, masculine. Is Mounce wrong, since
PLHRHS would appear to be a third declension adjective, whose genitive
would be PLHROUS. Also, Mounce says that twice PLHRHS is an accusative,
masculine singular. But the third declension adjectival form for the
accusative would seem to be PLHRH. Perhaps there is a typo.
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