Accusative of ?? in Luke 7:29

Kenneth Litwak javajedi2 at
Tue Sep 11 00:46:22 EDT 2001

   In Luke 7:29b, we read
By its parallel with 7:30, it should probably be
understood as "having been baptized by John's
baptism."  This, however, requires using an accusative
 to express means. Surely that's to invent yet another
grammatical category to use, rather than trying to
make sense of it with accepted categories.  How should
this accusative be understood.  Please don't tell me
categories as such are bad, since when I asked, no one
had a better practicable suggestion.  Thanks.


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