Translation Studies

jwest at highland.net jwest at highland.net
Fri Sep 7 05:16:36 EDT 2001


> Dear Jim:
> 
> Where does it say that Jesus was illiterate? Lk 4 is quite clear that he was
> able to read.
> 

this does have to do with greek so i'm going to say on list what i said in 
private to a number of folk.

lk 4 says nothing of the sort that is generally claimed for it.  in lk jesus is 
handed a scroll opened to a text and then he procedes to *recite* the text.  
the verb *anaginwskw* properly means *recite* rather than *read*.  why?  
because literally the verb is a compound with a preposition.  the preposition 
*ana* means *again* or *down*.  now, if we take this seriously it means *to 
know again, to know down* which is much closer in meaning to the english word 
*recite* than *read*.

that jesus *recited* is quite a different thing than that he *read*.

best to all

jim

++++++++++++++++++++++++++++

Jim West, ThD
Adjunct Professor of Biblical Studies
Roane State Community College

Biblical Studies Resources
http://web.infoave.net/~jwest






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