Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at
Tue Oct 2 17:39:29 EDT 2001

At 1:43 PM -0600 10/2/01, Wayne Leman wrote:
>What is the semantic function of META XARAS in the following passages?
>Mt. 13:20; 28:8; Mk. 4:16; Lk. 8:13; 10:17; 24:52; Acts 20:24 (textual
>Phil. 1:4; Col.1:11; 1 Th. 1:6; Heb. 10:34; 13:17.
>Does META XARAS state the manner in which the action with which it is
>associated was performed or does it have some other semantic function
>Would EN XARAi in Rom. 15:32 differ from META XARAS in semantic function,
>and, if so, how?

I've already posted my response to this (actually in response to Mike
Sangrey's response to Wayne's question) on B-Translation. Against all the
authority of just about all scholars ancient and modern, I have argued that
META CARAS in all these instances is really an adverbial phrase indicating
MANNER. That's not a category in the standard Greek grammars, but it sure
looks to me like all the instances Wayne cites are essentially comparable
to the Latin ablative of manner with the preposition CUM.

And I think that EN CARAi in Rom 15:32 is not essentially different in
meaning or function from the other instances of META CARAS. That is to say:
they are all qualifying verbs and all essentially answering the question,

I'm really glad to see this discussion coming over to B-Greek. I may be
very wrong, but I find it difficult to see how META CARAS in the verses
cited really falls properly under a category termed "attendant

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
Most months: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at OR cwconrad at

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