Epi in Mark 2:26

Christopher A Robinson jinxcar at juno.com
Thu Aug 23 17:08:57 EDT 2001

Dear all,

I have been discussing with someone why I think that the explanation that
Mark 2:26 could be read as "in the time of Abiathar" is incorrect. It
does not seem to me that the Greek supports this interpretation. It is
true that the preposition "epi" could be read as "in the days of."
However, isn't this only the case if there is the genitive form of the
definite article in the passage? Without the genitive definite article,
doesn't it read "At the time Abiathar was high priest"?

Christopher Robinson
University of Alabama-Birmingham
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