TI GEGONEN in John 14:22
maqhth at hotmail.com
Thu Aug 23 19:01:32 EDT 2001
>From: "Bret A. Hicks"
>I was studying John 14:22 and Judas asks Jesus TI GEGONEN HOTI HEMIN
>My question is how to understand TI GEGONEN. Does it mean
>a) "What has happened (that you now only intend to show yourself to us and
>not to the world)
>b) "Why (do you intend to show yourself only to us and not to the world)
>Choice (a) seems more literal, and this seems to be the understanding of
>the NASB. However, Jesus' reply seems to answer option (b), and this is
>how the NIV translates it. Robertson (Grammar, 739) seems to understand it
>to mean something close to option (b).
>Any comments on how to understand this?
Bret - I would guess that the question involves the expression TI GEGONEN
hOTI, and not just TI GEGONEN, so that perhaps the hOTI is not so much
introducing a 'hOTI' clause, although it certainly does do that, but more to
the point might be that when a hOTI clause follows TI GEGONEN, it may be
understood in English as "Why", and the English sense of the Greek might be
seen as "What has come to be that...?" So that in the Greek, what seems to
be being asked is an accounting of events, or at least AN event, that
happenned, such that something else happens, in this case Christ's
intentions... And it very well might could be that this was simply a casual
way of asking "Why?" in koine 1st century Greek... The BGs will have to
answer that one!
"Be not troubling of you the heart..."
[BG = Big Greek - Youknewthat!!] :-)
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