Matt 8:7

Iver Larsen iver_larsen at
Fri Aug 10 11:21:51 EDT 2001

I have a question on this sentence:


All the translations I have checked interpret it as a straightforward
statement: I shall come and heal him.

My problem is that this does not fit with the fronted EGW, nor does it fit
well with the context. It is a Roman officer who has just said that he has a
very sick servant lying in his home. All the bystanders knew that Jesus as a
Jew could not enter into the house of a gentile, and the officer makes clear
in the next verse that he did not require Jesus to come to his home although
people might have thought so from his description of the servant lying in
bed at home.

Because of the EGW and the context, I am wondering whether it would not be
possible - or better - to take the main verb as a first person subjunctive
aorist rather than an indicative future. In this case it would become a
question: "Should *I* come (to your house) and heal him?"

There are other examples of a present participle followed by a first person
subjunctive aorist, for instance:

Mk 6:37 APELQONTES AGORASWMEN ... "Should we go and buy...?"

In both cases one could assume an implied: Do you want me/us to ....
corresponding to the English subjunctive "should".

Any thoughts?

Iver Larsen

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