1 Peter 3:20: APEIQHSASIN

Steven R. LoVullo sundoulos1 at netzero.net
Mon May 8 22:54:52 EDT 2000


I think your conclusions are sound. Thanks for the reference to 2 Cor 3:2. I
think it is a good parallel.

Steve Lo Vullo

----- Original Message -----
From: Harold R. Holmyard III <hholmyard at ont.com>
To: Biblical Greek <b-greek at franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Monday, May 08, 2000 6:08 PM
Subject: 1 Peter 3:20: APEIQHSASIN

> To Carl (and anybody interested):
>      Thanks again for the material from the archives on APEIQHSASIN in 1
> Pet 3:20. I read through all of it with interest. Please let me say a
> couple of things. First, someone wrote in connection with the phrase EN
> in 1 Pet 3:19:
> >He concludes his discussion with adding that every other time EN hWi is
> >used in I Peter, it bears and adverbial/conjunctive force (1:6, 2:12,
> >3:16, 4:4).
> Let me suggest a couple of places in Peter where hWi seems to have an
> antecedent, and thus to function as a pronoun. In 1:6 hWi in the phrase EN
> hWi seems to refer back to SWTHRION in 1:5. They rejoice in a salvation
> which is ready to be revealed in the last time.  Admittedly, EN hWi in
> and 3:16 could have an adverbial/conjunctive force. In 4:4 the antecedent
> for hWi in the phrase EN hWi could be BOULNMA in 4:3. Sufficient is the
> time past to do the will of the Gentiles, in which they are astonished
> you do not run together (with them). Are these suggestions not valid?
>      Second, I tried to find a parallel for the use of an attributive
> participle subsequent to its antecedent but without a definite article (my
> understanding of APEIQHSASIN in 1 Pet 3:20). What do you think of the
> example I cited in 2 Cor 3:2? There we read:
> "For you are our epistle, written in our hearts, known and read by all
> It seems that EGGEGRAMMENH in 2 Cor 3:2 is quite close in function to
> APEIQHSASIN in 1 Pet 3:20. Both participles follow their antecedent with
> several intervening words. The antecedent in both cases has the article,
> while the participle does not. In both cases the participle initiates a
> clause that follows the clause in which the antecedent stands. In both
> cases the antecedent is placed first in its own clause for emphasis. The
> participle has some appositional force in both verses. In both cases the
> participle has a somewhat substantival usage; in 2 Cor 3:2 the idea would
> be: "You are our epistle, one written in our hearts." For 1 Pet 3:19-20
> idea would be: "in which also to the spirits in prison going he preached,
> to ones disobedient formerly."
>      Does not this example in 2 Cor 3:2 provide a good analogy for taking
> APEIQHSASIN in 1 Pet 3:20 in an attributive rather than in an adverbial
> sense?
> Yours,
> Harold Holmyard
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