DIAKRINW in 1Cor 11:29 and 11:31

Dmitriy Reznik reznik1 at juno.com
Sat Aug 26 21:11:25 EDT 2000


Dear friends:

V.29: hO GAR ESQIWN KAI PINWN KRIMA hEAUTW ESQIEI KAI PINEI MH DIAKRINWN
TO SWMA...
V.31: EI GAR hEAUTOUS DIEKRINOMEN ...

In these two verses same word DIAKRINW is used. But it doesn't look like
the meaning is same in both cases. Still the verses are located too close
to each other to be coincidence. What did Paul want to achieve by using
same word in 2 verses. Or I am wrong, and its meaning is same? But what
is the meaning then?

Thank you in advance.

Dmitriy Reznik
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