1 Tim. 2:12, meaning of AUQENTEIN

Mark Wilson emory2002 at hotmail.com
Mon Aug 14 01:17:48 EDT 2000




What I simply do not see here is why the fuss. It seems to me that our scale 
may reflect more of a worldly appraisal than a spiritual one.

Here is why:

I think implicit is the (human viewpoint) assumption that a submissive role 
of a woman or wife represents something less than "equality." But why does 
this follow? (Especially to the extent that Carl would see a “major” 
conflict with Gal 3 or Gen 1–3).

Could I not equally (no pun intended) assert that God has indeed assigned 
women or wives submissive roles to men or husbands, BUT, that these 
submissive roles are a “higher” spiritual calling than that of the 
leadership roles assigned to men? And my objection would then be directed 
toward why God has assigned men the "lesser" role.

Could I not reject 1 Tim 2 because it assigns to the woman a submissive role 
rather than a man? Perhaps it takes a stronger person spiritually to fulfill 
a submissive role, and God has given this privileged role to women only. 
Here, I could still object to this "apparent" un-equality, but with a 
spiritual twist: God has given the "higher" role to the woman. (That is: Why 
are men serving in an "inferior" role?)

I have never understood why we arbitrarily equate a submissive role to an 
inferior, or less than equal, role.

The rationale escapes me. I think if we looked at this from a purely "human" 
perspective, we might indeed conclude that an "un-equality" exists. But this 
certainly does not seem to reflect any biblical requirement.

Could someone help me understand why the implicit assumption that if a woman 
occupied a submissive role as a Christian that this would imply a less than 
equal role? (That is, submissive necessitates un-equality.)

Thank you,

Mark Wilson


________________________________________________________________________
Get Your Private, Free E-mail from MSN Hotmail at http://www.hotmail.com




More information about the B-Greek mailing list