English vs. Greek/present
Eric and Karol-Ann Weiss
eweiss at gte.net
Sun Aug 13 08:45:07 EDT 2000
yochanan bitan-buth wrote:
> Greek uses its 'present indicative' for both the present and for
> habituals. and you are aware that 'present
> subjunctive/imperative/infinitive' is a misnomer based on morphology for
> 'IN-PROCESS subjunctive/imperative/infinitive'
> Randall Buth
I have a 8-translation parallel NT (1 Greek, 7 English), and some translate
Rev. 21:5 as "I make all things new" and some translate it as "I am making all
things new" - which confirmed my question/predicament, and your reply doubly
confirms it - i.e., Greek uses the same verbal form for what in English are two
different forms/meanings, and the translator must decide how best to translate
the verse. Maybe in most cases it's not significant. In Rev. 21:5 there is the
possibility that the speaker (the One seated on the throne) is not just stating
a future fact, but is actually at that moment displaying for John the Seer the
regeneration of all things: "Behold, I am making (before your eyes) all things
new!" And then John writes these words, "because they are faithful and true,"
and then he is told (or it is announced): "It is done!" - i.e., perhaps
referring to the fact that the regeneration of all things has now been
accomplished, and John will momentarily be shown the Bride of the Lamb and the
rest of the paradisiacal vision.
Thanks for your reply!
"Eric S. Weiss"
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